DHA exam for doctors: GEN5331

Facts last verified 5 October 2026.

The Dubai Health Authority (DHA) GP paper covers more than adult medicine. Include child health, women’s health, surgery, emergencies and screening in your revision.

Is this the right paper for you?

Use GEN5331 if DHA gives you the General Practitioner title. Specialist and consultant titles have their own assessments.

  • For the standard overseas route, you need MBBS, MBChB or equivalent, at least 5 years of study. Add a 1-year internship and 2 years of clinical work after it.
  • UAE nationals, children of Emirati women and some UAE graduates have experience exceptions.
  • PLAB Parts 1 and 2, USMLE Part III and other PQR routes can exempt you. Exact route and proof dates matter; all other licensing steps remain.

Pass 60%

Format at a glance

150 questions. Time: 3 hours, including registration and the exam introduction. Pass mark: 60%.

Delivered by Prometric.

What the paper covers

We did not find published section weights for the DHA paper for doctors. ProMCQ's mock papers use the published Qatar DHP blueprint for doctors as practice targets. These are not DHA's own weights. Each mock includes national-topic content, so its final question shares can differ slightly from these targets.

  • Medicine (31.3%): Acute and chronic medicine; emergencies, psychiatry, skin, eye and ENT. Family medicine, screening, epidemiology and evidence-based medicine also appear in DHA’s outline. Short cases ask for the diagnosis, test or next step.
  • Obstetrics and Gynaecology (24%): Antenatal care, bleeding in pregnancy, contraception, period problems and gynaecological emergencies.
  • Paediatrics (24.7%): Assess a sick child or newborn. Revise fever, growth, vaccines and development.
  • Surgery (20%): Spot surgical problems and know when to refer. Revise the acute abdomen, trauma, breast lumps and urology.

Sample questions

Eight original practice questions from the DHA doctors bank. They are written to the paper's style, not taken from the live exam. Pick an answer to see the key and explanation.

  1. A 4-year-old boy weighing 16 kg has nocturnal perianal pruritus. A morning cellulose tape test shows Enterobius eggs. His parents want to use mebendazole, and the whole household will be treated at the same time. Which single oral dose should he receive?

    1. Mebendazole 50 mg
    2. Mebendazole 160 mg
    3. Mebendazole 100 mg
    4. Mebendazole 500 mg
    Answer

    C. Pinworm is treated with single-dose oral mebendazole 100 mg for adults and children, without weight adjustment. The dose is repeated after 14 days and the whole household is treated at the same time. Pyrantel 10 mg/kg (maximum 1 g) is the alternative.

  2. A 30-year-old woman undergoing suction evacuation for confirmed early pregnancy loss develops sudden severe abdominal pain. Suction is stopped, and examination of the aspirate reveals bowel tissue. What is the most appropriate management?

    1. Resume blind suction
    2. Observation with antibiotics
    3. Medical completion with misoprostol
    4. Laparoscopic assessment
    Answer

    D. Uterine perforation is the most concerning immediate complication of instrumental evacuation, most often at the fundus, and it typically causes severe pain. When perforation is suspected, suction is stopped and the aspirate examined. If bowel may be injured, management is by direct visualisation with laparoscopy.

  3. A patient reports persistent upper-abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. There is no bilious drain output, fever, or jaundice to suggest an acute bile-duct injury. What is the appropriate initial investigation strategy?

    1. Immediate ERCP for duct therapy
    2. MRCP of the biliary tree
    3. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for peptic ulcer disease
    4. Liver function tests and abdominal ultrasound
    Answer

    D. Post-cholecystectomy syndrome includes both biliary causes, such as retained common bile duct stone, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and bile leak, and non-biliary mimics, such as peptic ulcer disease or pancreatitis. Initial assessment is with liver function tests and abdominal ultrasound.

  4. A 48-year-old South Asian man attends a cardiometabolic check. His waist circumference is 92 cm, triglycerides 1.9 mmol/L, HDL-C 1.1 mmol/L, BP 126/80 mmHg and fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L. Which waist cut-off decides whether he has metabolic syndrome?

    1. ≥102 cm
    2. ≥90 cm
    3. ≥88 cm
    4. ≥80 cm
    Answer

    B. For South/East Asian populations the waist threshold is ≥90 cm in men and ≥80 cm in women. His 92 cm waist therefore counts, joining triglycerides ≥1.7 mmol/L and fasting glucose ≥5.6 mmol/L for 3 of 5 components; HDL-C 1.1 mmol/L and BP 126/80 mmHg do not meet their criteria.

  5. Four patients are in the coronary care unit on day 2 after their first acute MI. Which patient carries the highest risk of free-wall rupture?

    1. A 46-year-old normotensive man, inferior MI, good collaterals
    2. A 79-year-old hypertensive woman, anterior MI, no collaterals
    3. A 58-year-old diabetic man, small inferior MI, collaterals present
    4. A 64-year-old normotensive woman, lateral MI, collaterals present
    Answer

    B. Free-wall rupture typically follows a first anterior MI in an elderly hypertensive patient without collaterals, presenting as haemopericardium, tamponade or sudden PEA.

  6. A casualty receives an initial field tag during a mass-casualty incident. By hospital arrival, the casualty's condition and the available staffing have changed. What should happen to the initial triage decision?

    1. Retain the field tag to keep the incident record consistent
    2. Repeat triage in more detail and revise the tag if indicated
    3. Reassess at the next ward round rather than on arrival
    4. Repeat the rapid START check and keep the original tag colour
    Answer

    B. Triage is dynamic rather than a single fixed decision. The casualty should be reassessed at hospital arrival using more detailed secondary triage, with the original tag revised when changes in condition or resources justify it.

  7. A patient with atopic dermatitis develops fever and malaise with rapidly spreading, monomorphic punched-out erosions and vesicopustules over the face and periocular skin. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

    1. Treat this as an ordinary eczema flare with topical corticosteroid alone
    2. Start urgent intravenous acyclovir and arrange urgent ophthalmic assessment
    3. Use a topical calcineurin inhibitor on the affected periocular skin
    4. Start oral acyclovir and arrange dermatology review in 48 hours
    Answer

    B. The rapidly spreading monomorphic punched-out eruption with fever on eczematous skin is eczema herpeticum. Systemic acyclovir is urgent, intravenous acyclovir is appropriate because severe, rapidly spreading disease with fever/malaise meets IV criteria, and facial/periocular lesions require urgent ophthalmic assessment, though periocular skin involvement alone does not determine the route.

  8. Four mechanically ventilated patients are assessed for ventilator-associated pneumonia. Which patient meets the diagnostic frame for ventilator-associated pneumonia?

    1. New infiltrate 24 hours after intubation with fever >38°C but no other qualifying feature
    2. New infiltrate 72 hours after intubation with fever >38°C but no leukocyte abnormality or purulent secretions
    3. New infiltrate 72 hours after intubation with fever >38°C and purulent tracheal secretions
    4. Fever >38°C and leukocytosis 72 hours after intubation without a new or progressive infiltrate
    Answer

    C. VAP requires a new or progressive infiltrate >48 hours after endotracheal intubation with clinical evidence of infection such as fever, purulent secretions, leukocytosis or worsening oxygenation. No single gold-standard test exists and no rigid two-feature count defines VAP. Only the option describing a new infiltrate 72 hours after intubation with fever and purulent tracheal secretions provides infiltrate plus concordant clinical evidence.

Full papers in the real format

10 timed mock papers of 150 questions each, built to the weights above. No question repeats across papers.

How to prepare

  • Our suggested approach: practise cases and choose the next step before reading the options.
  • Revise child and women’s health early if you mostly treat adults.
  • Include screening, family medicine, epidemiology, psychiatry, eye, ENT and skin.
  • Use your missed questions to choose topics for book revision.

Licensing steps

  1. Check eligibility: Follow DHA licence steps.
  2. Book the exam: Follow DHA fees and booking.
  3. Get your result: Follow DHA results and next steps.

Frequently asked questions

What is the DHA GP pass mark?

60% for General Practitioner GEN5331. DHA gives a pass or fail result, with no raw score.

How long is the DHA doctor exam?

150 questions in a 3-hour appointment. Registration and the introduction are included, so answering time is shorter.

Where can you check exam exemptions?

Read DHA licence steps for your title’s routes and conditions. An exemption removes only the exam.

Which books does DHA list for GPs?

Toronto Notes, Davidson, Harrison, and Kumar and Clark are examples. Use them to check weak topics.

Sources

Facts last verified 2026-10-05.

  1. Healthcare Professional Licensing Assessment Guideline: Computer Based Testing (updated September 2026), Dubai Health Authority
  2. Unified Healthcare Professional Qualification Requirements, April 2025, MOHAP, DOH, DHA and SHA
  3. Manual for Licensing Healthcare Professionals, Dubai Health Authority
  4. Manual for Professional Assessment, Dubai Health Authority
  5. Get Registered (service description), Dubai Health Authority
  6. Activate Professional License (service description), Dubai Health Authority