OMSB GP exam: the OEGP paper

Facts last verified 5 October 2026.

The OEGP gives you 150 questions in 2 hours 45 minutes (GP booklet). Practise choosing the next test or treatment under time limits.

Is this the right paper for you?

The Omani Examination for General Practitioners (OEGP) needs a recognised bachelor’s degree in medicine (OEGP entry rules). Complete an approved or accredited internship first (OEGP booklet).

Pass 60%

Format at a glance

150 questions. Time: 2 h 45 min. Pass mark: 60%.

Delivered by Pearson VUE.

Sources: OMSB GP booklet

What the paper covers

ProMCQ's topic targets match the OMSB GP blueprint. The booklet allows up to ±5% variation in each exam category. Each mock includes national-topic content, so its final question shares can differ slightly from these targets.

  • Medicine (39%): Revise heart and lung disease, diabetes, gut conditions and infection. In cases, choose the next step.
  • Surgery (18%): Check acute abdomen, trauma and problems after surgery. Decide when to refer and how fast.
  • Women's Health (13%): Revise care in pregnancy, bleeding, contraception and common gynaecology.
  • Emergency (12%): Practise resuscitation, anaphylaxis and poisoning. Know the first steps when a patient is very sick.
  • Public/Community Health (11%): Revise screening and vaccines. Know how to control an outbreak. Study ethics, Oman’s notifiable diseases and national programmes.
  • Child Health (7%): Review fever, rashes, growth and development. Know when an infant is too ill to wait.

Sample questions

Eight original practice questions from the OMSB doctors bank. They are written to the paper's style, not taken from the live exam. Pick an answer to see the key and explanation.

  1. A 68-year-old man has ongoing large-volume hematochezia. He is pale and confused (HR 128 bpm; BP 82/48 mmHg) despite 1 L of crystalloid through two large-bore IV lines. His first haemoglobin is 104 g/L, and blood has been cross-matched. What is the most appropriate approach to red cell transfusion?

    1. Transfuse only at Hb ≤70 g/L
    2. Transfuse now, guided by bleeding
    3. Transfuse only at Hb ≤80 g/L
    4. More crystalloid, then recheck Hb
    Answer

    B. Restrictive thresholds (about 70 g/L, or ESGE ≤70 g/L without and ≤80 g/L with cardiovascular disease) are for haemodynamically stable patients. In active major haemorrhage with shock, resuscitation is guided by the clinical picture and blood loss; do not wait for a fixed haemoglobin threshold.

  2. A cohort study of 4,000 rubber-factory workers records 45 deaths over 15 years. To judge whether this mortality is excessive, the investigators must first estimate the number of deaths expected in the cohort. How should the expected number of deaths be derived?

    1. Apply the reference crude death rate
    2. Apply the cohort's crude death rate
    3. Divide deaths by cohort size
    4. Apply reference age-specific death rates
    Answer

    D. For the SMR, expected deaths use the reference population's age-specific rates applied to the study cohort. Then SMR = observed ÷ expected × 100. Using age-specific rates removes differences in age structure between the cohort and the reference population.

  3. A 29-year-old woman at 30 weeks has PPROM without infection or fetal compromise. During selection of latency antibiotics, amoxicillin-clavulanate is rejected because of an associated neonatal complication. Which complication accounts for avoiding this antibiotic?

    1. Necrotizing enterocolitis
    2. Respiratory distress syndrome
    3. Intraventricular haemorrhage
    4. Cerebral palsy
    Answer

    A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate should be avoided for PPROM latency treatment because it increases neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis risk.

  4. A patient is ready for discharge after an uncomplicated myocardial infarction. There are no stated contraindications, no high bleeding risk, and no statin intolerance. Which five-drug secondary-prevention bundle is recommended?

    1. High-intensity statin, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, and P2Y12 inhibitor
    2. High-intensity statin, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, and colchicine
    3. High-intensity statin, ACE inhibitor, ezetimibe, aspirin, and P2Y12 inhibitor
    4. High-intensity statin, PCSK9 inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, and P2Y12 inhibitor
    Answer

    A. In the absence of contraindications, the post-MI discharge bundle includes a high-intensity statin, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin and a P2Y12 inhibitor for default dual therapy at least 12 months when bleeding risk is not high.

  5. A 9-year-old girl is diagnosed with non-severe, drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis. There is no suspicion or evidence of MDR/RR-TB, and she has no features of meningitis. Her tuberculosis team is selecting a regimen under current WHO guidance. Which regimen does WHO recommend for her?

    1. 2HRZ(E)/4HR over 6 months
    2. 2HRZE/10HR over 12 months
    3. 2HRZ(E)/2HR over 4 months
    4. 6HRZEto over 6 months
    Answer

    C. WHO guidance recommends the shortened 4-month regimen, 2HRZ(E)/2HR, for selected non-severe tuberculosis in children aged 3 months to 16 years who have no suspicion or evidence of MDR/RR-TB. Other drug-susceptible disease commonly uses 2HRZ(E)/4HR.

  6. A patient has persistent moderate-severe allergic rhinitis and has not yet received pharmacotherapy. Which treatment is the most appropriate first-line choice?

    1. A second-generation oral antihistamine alone
    2. Allergen immunotherapy
    3. A topical decongestant spray used regularly
    4. An intranasal corticosteroid
    Answer

    D. For moderate-severe or persistent allergic rhinitis, an intranasal corticosteroid is first line and is more effective than oral antihistamine monotherapy.

  7. A pregnant woman is removed from a smoke-filled room and treated immediately with 100% oxygen. Co-oximetry confirms carbon monoxide exposure, but the absolute carboxyhaemoglobin concentration is not high. What is the most appropriate next management decision?

    1. Continue 100% oxygen and defer hyperbaric consultation unless cardiac ischaemia or a persistent neurological deficit develops
    2. Seek urgent hyperbaric oxygen consultation only if the carboxyhaemoglobin concentration exceeds a high treatment threshold
    3. Continue 100% oxygen alone, since normobaric oxygen already accelerates carboxyhaemoglobin elimination in mother and fetus
    4. Seek urgent hyperbaric oxygen consultation now because fetal haemoglobin has greater carbon monoxide affinity
    Answer

    D. Pregnancy is a specific indication for urgent hyperbaric oxygen consultation after carbon monoxide poisoning because fetal haemoglobin has greater carbon monoxide affinity. This indication does not depend on the absolute carboxyhaemoglobin concentration.

  8. A 63-year-old patient presents with new dyspepsia and alarm features. Gastric adenocarcinoma is suspected. Which pathological sequence is a key risk pathway for this malignancy?

    1. Chronic GERD → Barrett oesophagus → distal oesophageal adenocarcinoma
    2. Chronic H. pylori infection → atrophic gastritis → intestinal metaplasia
    3. Chronic H. pylori infection → intestinal metaplasia → atrophic gastritis
    4. Pernicious anaemia → chronic H. pylori infection → atrophic gastritis
    Answer

    B. Chronic H. pylori infection followed by atrophic gastritis and intestinal metaplasia is a major pathogenesis sequence for gastric adenocarcinoma. New dyspepsia at age ≥55 with weight loss warrants urgent upper GI endoscopy within 2 weeks to exclude cancer.

Full papers in the real format

10 timed mock papers of 150 questions each, built to the weights above. No question repeats across papers.

How to prepare

  • The OEGP booklet gives 150 questions in 2 hours 45 minutes. We work that out as 66 seconds per question (booklet time).
  • Read Oxford general-practice handbooks, Murtagh, Merck, the BNF and Oman MOH manuals (reading list). Use the MOH manuals for local care.
  • Use timed mocks to practise choosing the next test or treatment. Set any target above the pass mark as your own safety margin.
  • Our Oman notes cover disease burden, genetics and infections. They also cover law, health services, insurance, national programmes, screening and vital statistics.

Licensing steps

  1. Check licence requirements: Follow licence steps for documents and your employer’s role.
  2. Plan fees and book: Use fees and booking to plan costs and check your ID.
  3. Use your result: Follow results and next steps after a pass or fail.

Frequently asked questions

What is the OEGP pass mark?

60% (OEGP booklet).

What type of questions does the OEGP use?

Single-best-answer multiple-choice questions (OEGP booklet).

Where can you find the OEGP topic outline?

Use the OEGP booklet for the general-practice outline.

Where should you check fees and retakes?

Use OMSB fees and booking before paying. After the exam, follow OMSB results.

Sources

Facts last verified 2026-10-05.

  1. Omani Examination for General Practitioners booklet (August 2025), Oman Medical Specialty Board